Did Jesus pay for all sins ‘in full,’ leaving only belief to us?
Robert Sungenis answers that Scripture never states "paid in full" as a doctrinal formula, and reads 1 Corinthians 6:20 as metaphorical. He argues that if the sin-debt were fully paid in the strict sense nobody would go to hell, that limiting it to the elect contradicts 1 John 2:2, John 3:16 and 1 Timothy 2:4, and that Catholic teaching affirms a sufficient objective atonement with real participation by grace.
Protestants say Jesus became sin and fully paid the price, so Catholic teaching reduces Christ to ‘making a way.’ Is that biblical?
Answer
Scripture never states ‘paid in full’ as a doctrinal formula. 1 Cor 6:20 (‘bought with a price’) is metaphorical. If all sin-debt were fully paid in the strict sense, no one would go to hell. Limiting payment to the ‘elect’ contradicts texts stating Christ died for the world (1 Jn 2:2; Jn 3:16; 1 Tim 2:4). 2 Cor 5:21, per Augustine, means Christ became a sin offering, not ‘sin itself.’ Isaiah emphasizes that the Father is pleased by the Servant’s suffering, not that the Son is punished as a sinner. Catholic soteriology affirms Christ’s sufficient, objective atonement and our real participation by grace.