If redemption meant appeasing the Father and restoring His honor, why couldn't a sinless human do it instead of God the Son?
A viewer asks: if redemption was achieved by appeasing the Father and restoring His honor, could these conditions not be satisfied by a sinless human creature? Why did God the Son have to become man to do it?
Answer
Because there is nobody without sin; that is the whole reason. There is no human being without sin: either you have original sin from Adam or you have actual sin, and Romans 5:12, by the way the verb tenses are used, is talking about both. So no ordinary man could ever be used as a sacrifice. This is the whole reason the Old Testament sacrifice had to be a lamb without blemish, which signified that there was no sin, neither original nor actual, in the Redeemer who would come. No sinner is going to appease the wrath of the Father or restore His honor; that is why God the Son, who alone is without sin, had to become man to do it.