Why does 1 John 2:22 apply to Mormons, who claim to accept the Father and the Son as separate beings?
A viewer asks why 1 John 2:22, which calls the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ an antichrist who denies the Father and the Son, applies to Mormons, since they claim to recognize the Father and the Son, albeit as separate beings, and whether the Greek syntax implies a substantial oneness.
Answer
It does not have to rest on the Greek syntax, because the Bible describes the relationship between the Father and Jesus in many other places, so you cannot base it all on 1 John 2:22 and claim that because it does not say something, that proves your case. You need much more information to determine whether the Mormons fit this bill, and you especially need the magisterium's judgment on what the relationship between the Father and Jesus actually is. The Church has been over this with a fine-tooth comb; it struggled with the issue in the first three centuries and then had to deal with the Arian heresy for centuries after, because it spread everywhere. So the Church has worked on that relationship for literally centuries and set certain parameters and limits on what you can and cannot say, and you need all of that before you can conclude one way or the other about the Mormons. You cannot use one verse and then draw conclusions.