Why does Luke 2:22 say 'their purification,' and was Jesus presented with the five-shekel ransom?
A viewer asks why Luke 2:22 says 'for their purification,' notes Mary's purification is understandable, and asks about the five-shekel ransom of the firstborn, since he cannot find where Jesus was presented for it.
Answer
The only information we are given is Luke 2:22 itself, 'after the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they carried Him to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord.' We take the phrase 'to present Him to the Lord' as referring to the five-shekel ransom of Exodus 13, because that would be the only reason to present Him, and it makes perfect sense. The verse implies that Mary's purification was completed and then, immediately after, they went to present Jesus to the Lord, so there is no delay indicated in the text. I would challenge anyone to get anything other than that out of the verse. So my answer is that 'to present Him to the Lord' is the five-shekel ransom of the firstborn.